Please make sure you have all of the following prior to the test day:
Training records, Logbook, Medical Certificate Class 1, AELP (English Language Assessment) and KDR's completed by a Flight Instructor.
The following forms will need to be available from the school or Flight Examiner:- 61-PLA, 61-1490, 61-9 PIC, ASIC copy
You will need to either have made any applicable payment to CASA for the licence on line or have a credit card available to complete the details on the application form.
Minimum age – the examiner must sight one of the following documents to verify that the applicant is at least 18 years of age:
Australian driver licence, CASA issued medical certificate, Australian passport, Australian birth certificate.
Eligibility certification – the examiner must ensure that an appropriate person of the training provider has certified in writing that the applicant is eligible to take the flight test.
Test Duration (Approximate)
Oral questioning 45min-1 hour
Flight Test 2.5 hrs
Quick pre-test checklist (bring this with you)
Today’s W&B (T/O and landing) within limits.
Performance tables computed (runway, surface, DA, obstacles).
Flight Plan with headings/times/fuel, diversion blank ready.
NOTAMs/Weather printed or cached; alternates/last-light if relevant.
EFB & backups (power, paper minima, critical frequencies, LSALT method).
Standard briefs ready: departure, diversion, PFL/precautionary, approach/landing gates.
General guidance for Knowledge Assessment of CASA Flight Tests
When sitting any category of oral examination for a flight test the Flight Examiner may ask you any questions up to and including the category of license for which you are presenting.
Generally Flight Examiners will restrict their questioning to the knowledge requirements of the MOS Schedule 5 listed on the relevant flight test form.
The best way to prepare for the oral component of a flight test used is to study the flight test form and the subject matter carefully and thoroughly well in advance of the scheduled flight test date.
This will enable you to sit the test with the level of confidence you require and the of level of knowledge you require to satisfy the Flight Examiner.
If you answer questions correctly and without hesitation to the satisfaction of the Flight Examiner, the questioning will be brief. If however, you are unsure of the answers and make mistakes the Flight Examiner will go further with the questioning.
Flight examiners will also examine your KDR's (Knowledge Deficiency Reports) and may ask questions about the deficient items even though a previous flight instructor has checked you on these items. Make sure that you understand where you went wrong in the written exams and study the areas carefully because questions may be asked about these topics.
When answering questions, take a moment to think about what the Flight Examiner is actually asking you. Often candidates do not listen to the question and start talking about something else. The questions the flight examiner asks will be clear, simple and unambiguous. A simple question requires a simple answer - just answer the question and do not offer any more information. If the Flight Examiner requires further information they will ask for it. If you do not understand the question seek clarification before answering.
MOS Schedule 2 Competency Standards NTS1
NTS 1 Examination items for every flight test!
NTS1 Non-technical skills 1
1 Unit description
This unit describes the knowledge and skills required to manage a safe flight.
2 Elements and performance criteria
2.1 NTS1.1 – Maintain effective lookout
(a) maintain traffic separation using a systematic visual scan technique at a rate determined by traffic density, visibility and terrain;
(b) maintain radio listening watch and interpret transmissions to determine traffic location and intentions;
(c) perform airspace-cleared procedure before commencing any manoeuvre.
2.2 NTS1.2 – Maintain situational awareness
(a) monitor all aircraft systems using a systematic scan technique;
(b) collect information to facilitate ongoing system management;
(c) monitor flight environment for deviations from planned operations;
(d) collect flight environment information to update planned operations.
2.3 NTS1.3 – Assess situations and make decisions
(a) identify problems;
(b) analyse problems;
(c) identify solutions;
(d) assess solutions and risks;
(e) decide on a course of action;
(f) communicate plans of action (if appropriate);
(g) allocate tasks for action (if appropriate);
(h) take actions to achieve optimum outcomes for the operation;
(i) monitor progress against plan;
(j) re-evaluate plan to achieve optimum outcomes.
2.4 NTS1.4 – Set priorities and manage tasks
(a) organise workload and priorities to ensure optimum outcome of the flight;
(b) plan events and tasks to occur sequentially;
(c) anticipate events and tasks to ensure sufficient opportunity for completion;
(d) use technology to reduce workload and improve cognitive and manipulative activities.
2.5 NTS1.5 – Maintain effective communications and interpersonal relationships
(a) establish and maintain effective and efficient communications and interpersonal relationships with all stakeholders to ensure the optimum outcome of the flight;
(b) define and explain objectives to stakeholders;
(c) demonstrate a level of assertiveness that ensures the optimum completion of the flight.
3 Range of variables
(a) simulated conditions may be used where appropriate.
4 Underpinning knowledge of the following:
(a) effective communication under normal and non-normal circumstances;
(b) task management.
MOS Schedule 2 Competency Standards NTS2
NTS 2 Examination items for every flight test!
NTS2 Non-technical skills 2
1 Unit description
This unit describes the knowledge and skills required to recognise, direct and manage threats and errors during flight operations.
2 Elements and performance criteria
2.1 NTS2.1 – Recognise and manage threats
(a) identify relevant environmental or operational threats that are likely to affect the safety of the flight;
(b) identify when competing priorities and demands may represent a threat to the safety of the flight;
(c) develop and implement countermeasures to manage threats;
(d) monitor and assess flight progress to ensure a safe outcome, or modify actions when a safe outcome is not assured.
2.2 NTS2.2 – Recognise and manage errors
(a) apply checklists and standard operating procedures to prevent aircraft handling, procedural or communication errors;
(b) identify committed errors before safety is affected or the aircraft enters an undesired state;
(c) monitor the following to collect and analyse information to identify potential or actual errors:
(i) aircraft systems using a systematic scan technique;
(ii) the flight environment;
(iii) other crew;
(d) implement countermeasures to prevent errors or take action in the time available to correct errors before the aircraft enters an undesired state.
2.3 NTS2.3 – Recognise and manage undesired aircraft state
(a) recognise an undesired aircraft state;
(b) prioritise tasks to ensure an undesired aircraft state is managed effectively;
(c) apply corrective actions to recover an undesired aircraft state in a safe and timely manner.
3 Range of variables
(a) Reserved;
(b) simulated conditions may be used where appropriate.
4 Underpinning knowledge of the following:
(a) effective communication under normal and non-normal circumstances;
(b) threat and error management detailing processes that can be used to identify and mitigate or control threats and errors;
(c) the application of situational awareness to identifying real or potential environmental or operational threats to flight safety;
(d) developing and implementing plans of action for the following:
(i) removing and mitigating threats;
(ii) removing and mitigating errors;
(e) undesired aircraft states, including prevention, identifying and controlling;
(f) how an undesired aircraft state can develop from an unmanaged threat or error;
(g) what aspects of multi-crew operations (if applicable) can prevent an undesired aircraft state;
(h) use of checklists and standard operating procedures to prevent errors.
(i) task management, including:
(i) workload organisation and priority setting to ensure optimum safe outcome of the flight;
(ii) event planning to occur in a logical and sequential manner;
(iii) anticipating events to ensure sufficient opportunity is available for completion;
(iv) using technology to reduce workload and improve cognitive and manipulative activities;
(v) task prioritisation and protection whilst filtering and managing real time information.
CPL Flight Test Tolerances
Table 2: Aeroplane general flight tolerances – professional level
Applicability
1.1 The flight tolerances in this subsection apply to the following licences and ratings:
Commercial pilot licence;
Requirements
2.1 A person is required to perform flight manoeuvres within the flight tolerances mentioned in this table to be assessed as competent in the associated unit of competency.
Flight tolerances
Taxing aircraft ±1.5 metres of centreline
Nominated heading ±5°
Climb airspeed -0 / +5 kts
Level off from climb and descent ±100 ft
Straight and level Altitude ±100 ft IAS ±10 kts or ±M.02
Not below minimum approach speed.
Power descent ±10 kts
Glide -5 / +10 kts
Turns Angle of Bank ±5°
Turns onto nominated headings Heading ±5°
Steep Turn Heading ±10° Height ±100 Ft
Final approach airspeed -0 / +5 kts
Landing Touchdown ±60 m
Centreline tracking ±2 m
Asymmetric flight Heading – initial ±20° Heading – sustained ±5°
IAS -0 +5 kts
Limited panel instrument flying
Heading ±15° IAS ±10 kts or ±M0.02 Height ±200 ft
Schedule 8 Pilot Maintenance
Schedule 8—Maintenance that may be carried out on a Class B aircraft by a person entitled to do so under subregulation 42ZC(4)
(subregulation 42ZC(4))
Part 1—Maintenance on Class B aircraft other than manned free balloons
1. Removal or installation of landing gear tyres, but only if the removal or installation does not involve the complete jacking of the aircraft.
2. Repair of pneumatic tubes of landing gear tyres.
3. Servicing of landing gear wheel bearings.
4. Replacement of defective safety wiring or split pins, but not including wiring or pins in control systems.
5. Removal or refitting of a door, but only if:
(a) no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved; and
(b) if the aircraft is to be operated with the door removed—the aircraft has a flight manual and the manual indicates that the aircraft may be operated with the door removed.
6. Replacement of side windows in an unpressurised aircraft.
7. Replacement of seats, but only if the replacement does not involve disassembly of any part of the primary structure of the aircraft.
8. Repairs to the upholstery or decorative furnishings of the interior of the cabin or cockpit.
9. Replacement of seat belts or harnesses.
10. Replacement or repair of signs and markings.
11. Replacement of bulbs, reflectors, glasses, lenses or lights.
12. Replacement, cleaning, or setting gaps of, spark plugs.
13. Replacement of batteries.
14. Changing oil filters or air filters.
15. Changing or replenishing engine oil or fuel.
16. Lubrication not requiring disassembly or requiring only the removal of non‑structural parts, or of cover plates, cowlings and fairings.
17. Replenishment of hydraulic fluid.
18. Application of preservative or protective materials, but only if no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved.
19. Removal or replacement of equipment used for agricultural purposes.
20. Removal or replacement of glider tow hooks.
21. Carrying out of an inspection under regulation 42G of a flight control system that has been assembled, adjusted, repaired, modified or replaced.
22. Carrying out of a daily inspection of an aircraft.
23. Connection and disconnection of optional dual control in an aircraft without the use of any tools for the purpose of transitioning the aircraft from single to dual, or dual to single, pilot operation.
24. Inspections or checks set out in the following documents in circumstances where the document clearly states that the maintenance may be carried out by the pilot of the aircraft and the maintenance does not require the use of any tools or equipment:
(a) the aircraft’s approved maintenance data;
(b) the aircraft’s flight manual or an equivalent document;
(c) any instructions issued by the NAA that approved the type certificate for the aircraft.
25. For an aircraft that is installed with an oxygen system for the exclusive use of ill or injured persons on an aircraft used to perform ambulance functions—replenishing the oxygen system installed on the aircraft.
CPL Flight Examiner Handbook Content
Press the button below to go to the CASA website
The sections that are relevant to the CPL Flight test are Section 4 NTS 1 and NTS 2 P49-64 Assessment and Section 9 CPL Flight Test P101-110
CPL Test Form 61-1490
Press the button below to go to the CASA website
This is the form that your Flight Examiner will use to assess you for the CPL Flight test.
FAQ CPL Flight Test
Things we get asked a lot
It is a perfectly normal human reaction. If you are well prepared and well trained you will have nothing to worry about.
Listen carefully to the Flight Examiners question. Let them finish before you jump in with an answer. The question will be clear and simple, and they are expecting a simple answer. Answer only the question that was asked then STOP TALKING! If they want more information, they will ask for it.
Generally, not, they will usually ask the question in another way or move on and come back to it later. Sometimes people have a mental blank on the spot but after a few minutes the answer comes to them.
Flight Examiners have to be completely impartial and make their judgements on your performance on the day and that day only. Flight Examiners are not out to deliberately influence the test result. If you meet the standards set out in the Flight Examiner’s Handbook, you will pass the test.
Minor errors can be ok. If you have a good understanding and can explain the answer in a different way to the satisfaction of the Examiner then you will probably be fine. If for instance, you have no clue about something as important as Flight & Duty times, then expect a bad outcome.
Yes, to a minor extent, if you start looking up the answer to every question the Examiner will suspect that you haven’t done enough preparation.
Bad idea! They have heard all the tricks and excuses a thousand times. If you really don’t know just admit it and promise you’ll go back and study what you didn’t know. If it’s minor, they might let you get away with it.
Give them a simple answer! They are not out to trick you into making a mistake, they simply want to satisfy themselves that you know what you are talking about.
Generally not, but they certainly have the right to do so. They will have a look through them. If you have done a good job of researching the ones you got wrong and have the notes to prove that you have done the work, that is generally enough.
Sometimes, but be prepared for anything.
Probably not, the questioning will be more scenario based and be more like a conversation with the examiner mentally ticking off the subject areas in his head. If you have prepared well you have nothing to be concerned about.
If you fire back the correct answers to the questions as little as 15 minutes. If you are struggling, then longer. There is no set time. Most Examiners allow an hour for the document review and questions.
Turn it off before you go in, then you won’t have to worry!
Just excuse yourself and be quick. Make sure you go just before the test begins.
No, paper charts and ERSA only, calculator is fine.
Expect questions on Class C/D/G ops, VMC minima, controlled aerodrome procedures, CTA steps, LSALT, last-light considerations if relevant, and practical alternates/fuel rules for VFR commercial-standard planning.
Through “what-if” prompts—weather deterioration, runway closure, unserviceability, sick passenger. I’m looking for conservative, lawful choices and timely re-planning.
Can’t show within-limits W&B (T/O and landing).
Guessing performance instead of using the POH.
Confused about airspace/VMC minima or controlled aerodrome procedures.
Weak fuel/alternate reasoning or ignoring NOTAMs.
Expect at least: PFL (power-off glide) to a safe landing area, precautionary search & landing (low-pass inspection and circuit), and at least one systems abnormal (e.g., alternator failure, carb ice/induction, partial flap or flap-less landing). Always use Aviate–Navigate–Communicate and the checklist when time permits. Below 300ft for the PFL you must be aligned with the centreline of the runeay, ROD not more than 1,000 FPM angle of bank not more than 10 deg, but sideslipping is allowed. Once I am convinced you can make a safe landing I will call a go around. If the possibility of a safe landing is in doubt it will be a fail item and have to be retested at a later date.
Unstable approaches not corrected or continued below a sensible gate.
Gross airspace infringements or unsafe airmanship.
Loss of aircraft control, repeated busts of speed/height/heading with no recognition, or poor decision-making that raises risk.
Completion Form
Please complete the details below to certify that you have read all of the content of this section. If you have any further questions, please contact me on 0418 260 014 or email me at douglashth@gmail.com.